kgain kgain
  • 04-05-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

Respuesta :

arlen54
arlen54 arlen54
  • 04-05-2020
That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence
Answer Link
lincolin lincolin
  • 04-05-2020

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Wolpert explains that his group tried to reverse engineer how humans control movement. What makes this difficult, and what is the example he used to demonstrate
You are going to take a one-hour bike ride. Explain how you will prepare for the ride, what you will take with you, where you will ride, and what you might see
If f (x) = 3x + 2 and g(x) = x2 – x, find the value. g(-3) =
Can someone write me an essay on how education can help both me and others
I NEED SOME ONE WHO IS GOOD AT SPANISH TO ANSWER THIS QUESTION ILL MARK YOU THE BRAINLIEST NO LINKS !!!
Need help on my algebra work nothing make sense
Decide whether the expression has been simplified correctly (ab)^8 = ab^8 A.) yes B.)No
thanks in advance! very much appreciated! :) Which pattern is non-linear? A. -4, 2, 8. 14, 20,... B. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32,... C. 3, 6, 9, 12, 15,... D. 5, 9, 13, 17
can someone describe Monica Youn
Why did Cortez conquer the Aztec empire