rcukierkorn rcukierkorn

02-05-2017
Mathematics

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Yes or No? The integral of a to b f(x)dx is the area bounded by the graph of f, the x-axis and the lines x=a and x=b.

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LammettHash LammettHash

02-05-2017

No, in general this is not the case. It's only true if [tex]f(x)>0[/tex] for [tex]a<x<b[/tex]. Otherwise the definite integral gives the *signed* area, which could be negative or even 0.

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